The Abolition of Man
After having read “The Abolition of Man,” by C.S Lewis and “Leviathan” by Thomas Hobbes this is the questioned probed:
C.S. Lewis could argue that Thomas Hobbes is a “conditioner,” whose aim is (whether he avows it or not) the “Abolition of man.”
- What evidence could C.S. Lewis draw from “Leviathan” to support this description of the substance and implications of Hobbes’s argument? Evaluate this claim.
- Do you agree or disagree—in part or wholly—with it? Explain your assessment.